They have taken our houses through an illegal foreclosure process, despite not having the original mortgage.

This probably requires a legal response, and that is not my intention for these posts, so I will give a “lay-response” to stimulate comment.

It seems to me that if “they” (the non-specific reference to which is worthy of a long response in itself) have been paid according to the terms of the mortgage, there would be no foreclosure at all. If greed is the driving force of “them” as is claimed, the best way to protect against foreclosure is for “us” to pay our bills.

That said, what is this “illegal process”? If it is illegal, then it presumably has been found by a court of competant jurisdiction to have violated the law. This information would be beneficial to know.